> According to what standard are you claiming to justtify a notion of
> rationality-irrationality? Is rationality that which is determined by a
> community, and if so are there universal standards or only those
> relative to differing cultures? Is the 'rational' on the other hand
> decided purely on a personal basis, varying from individual to
> individual and more appropriately considered as variations in personal
> ADAPTIVITY?
>
I was referring to the (-1)^.5 formula of an irrational number. For
example, an improbable history created as an effect and caused by something
happening in the present. A rational effect is the one that appears to be
caused by an earlier event. Feynman said something about a quark like
thingy capable of vibrating backwards and forwards across time. My point
was that this would make it possible to contemplate both in a superordinate
view. In the amathematical expression of a neuron's output, the irrational
signal is the one that doesn't happen even though it conceivably could.
However you could replace a neuron with a community and the result would be
the same, i.e., the cracks and crevasses of history can easily be covered
over with just a thin layer of propaganda.
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